IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 Solution Design

1. Which two statements describe Maximo Locations? (Choose two.)

A. Maximo Locations can be readily created, modified, or deleted.
B. Maximo Locations define places where assets are operated or stored.
C. Maximo Locations define places where a company expends resources and tracks costs.
D. Maximo Locations are restricted to entities having physical and geo-spatial boundaries.
E. Maximo Locations must contain a physical index like a postal address, a room number, or a plant section ID

Answer BC

2. The client has outlined in the discovery phase of the project that they want to incorporate three divisions, and each has a different chart of accounts with the same GL Account Configuration. From this information, how many organization(s) should be created for the solution is required to be decided How many organization(s) should be created?

A. one
B. two
C. four
D. three

Answer D

3. What are two examples of Linear Assets? (Choose two.)

A. Gas Pipelines
B. University Campus
C. Poultry Processing Plants
D. Water Treatment Holding Ponds
E. Electrical Power Distribution Lines

Answer AE

4. What are the standard location types in IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1?

A. Operating, Holding, Vendor, Shop, and Labor
B. Storeroom, Courier, Work, Salvage, and Holding
C. Storeroom, Operating, Work, Salvage, and Labor
D. Operating, Storeroom, Vendor, Holding, and Repair

Answer D

5. At which data level do Contracts, Labor, and Chart of Accounts reside?

A. Set
B. Site
C. System
D. Organization

Answer D

6. The customer’s legacy system has no functionality to create custom integrations. Which two options are available to migrate data from a legacy system to an IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 (MAM) environment? (Choose two.)

A. Export data from the legacy system and import data as a database dump.
B. Directly insert extracted data from the legacy system into the MAM database, by using SQL statements.
C. Extract data from the legacy system into flat files and use the Maximo Migration Manager to migrate the data into MAM.
D. Use the data migration option in the Maximo Integration Adapter, after having extracted data from the legacy system into the comma-separated value (CSV) files.
E. Use the data import option in the Integration Framework, after having extracted data from the legacy system into the CSV files.

Answer BE

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IBM Tivoli Storage Manager V6.1 Administration

1. Which command can be used to verify if a BUCKUP STGPOOL command finished successfully?

A. Q LOG
B. Q ACTLOG
C. Q PROCESS
D. Q STGPOOL

Answer B

2. What is the minimum size of active log?

A. 2 GB
B. 13 GB
C. 128 GB
D. It depends upon the file system size

Answer A

3. Which option disables deduplication when using update scgpooi?

A. DUPLICATE=NO
B. DUPLICATE=OFF
C. DEDUPLICATE=NO
D. DEDUPLICATE=OFF

Answer C

4. An IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) administrator checks daily the Tivoli Storage Manager activity log for errors and warnings This task is a manual process that should be automated. What should the administrator do?

A. Create a script and run it daily from the command line.
B. Create a script and a client schedule to run it daily automatically.
C. Create a script and an administrative schedule to run it daily automatically.
D. Use the Administration Center, select Define Script, and then select “run daily”.

Answer C

5. Which type of storage pool can use either a sequential access device class or a random access device class?

A. active-data pool
B. copy storage pool
C. primary storage pool
D. deduplicated data pool

Answer C

6. After a scheduled backup to IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (Tivoli Storage Manager) performed by Tivoli Storage Manager client node, it has been found that few files have been skipped or not included in backup for some reason. Which two logs from backup-archive client should be checked as an initial step to get information of schedule operation failure? (Choose two.)

A. activity log
B. error report from operating system
C. dsmerror.log file located in backup-archive client installation directory
D. Dally Operational Report generated by Tivoli Storage Manager server
E. dsmsched.log file located in backup-archive client Installation directory

Answer CE

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Specialist – Interaction Center and Operational Analyst Implementation and Design Elective Exam

1. Interaction Center (IC) 7.0 has a load-balancing service for Internet Web Management if there are multiple ICM servers. If the customer has only one site, then alarms by this service can be ignored.
What service sends alarms to the IC Manager?

A. Central Internet Routing Service (CIRS)
B. Central Alarm Reporting Services (CARS)
C. Central Office Reporting Services (CORS)
D. Routing Management And Technology Services (RMATS)

Answer: A

2. How does the Avaya Interaction Center (IC) 7.0 Blender Server decide how many contacts (voice, email, chat) can be simultaneously assigned to one agent through the Avaya Agent Desktop interface?

A. by comparing the agent’s performance today with a pre-defined day
B. by comparing the agent’s performance today with a pre-defined day
C. by comparing the current service level of all active contacts (voice, email and chat)
D. by using the maximum number of contacts pre-assigned by the supervisor or administrator or modified by the agent

Answer: D

3. When Operational Analyst 7.0.x is installed and configured, the ORBacus service uses port 10000 by default.
Which three statements are correct regarding configuration of the port that ORBacus uses? (Choose three.)

A. This value is not configurable, and port 10000 must be available for ORBacus service to use.
B. Before making configuration changes to modify this port, the ‘pa stop all’ command should be issued.
C. On all platforms, a line for NSPort= must be added to the server.properties file in /data/admin.
D. The dcproperty table in the historical database must be updated with the new port value.
E. The ephemeral ports used by the ORBacus service will be assigned sequentially using the new port number as the base.

Answer: BCD

4. You are working with an IC/OA installation that is not using Business Advocate. Tabular Reports are showing no data.
What might be the problem?

A. The Event Collector is down.
B. The historical database is down.
C. The historical subsystem is down.
D. The Event Collector Bridge is down.

Answer: A

5. The Operational Analyst (OA) installation was completed successfully. However, you find that the real-time reports give errors on startup. You know the authentication has been set up correctly and one
of the services for the real-time reports does not start.
Which tool can be used to check for the root cause of the problem?

A. IC Manager
B. Real-time Report Administration
C. OA Command Output – Forwarder Services
D. OA Administration Client – Interface Services

Answer: D

6. Which is a description of the term “domain”, within the context of the Interaction Center (IC) 7.0?

A. set of workgroups
B. group of same skilled agents
C. set of inter-connected servers
D. group of networked computers

Answer: C

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Avaya Modular Messaging Design Elective Exam

1. Which three are Avaya’s new market-based service packages? (Choose three)

A. Full Service
B. Basic Service
C. Premium Service
D. Industry Standard
E. Enhanced Service

Answer: A C D

2. Which service package should a customer purchase to gain Avaya implementation of MODULAR Messaging turnkey with 10 Caller Apps and Web Client application implementation?

A. Full Service
B. Basic Service
C. Premium Service
D. Enhanced Service

Answer: C

3. Using E-1 QSIG integration, which statements is true about blocking incoming faxes on Modular Messaging with Message Storage Server (MSS)?

A. Faxes are blocked on a system-wide basis
B. Faxes are blocked on a class of service basis
C. Faxes are blocked on an individual subscriber basis
D. Incoming faxes cannot be blocked using this integration

Answer: B

4. Upgraded of Software Support Plus are available in which two terms of payment? (Choose two)

A. One year prepaid
B. Two year annual
C. Three year annual
D. Three year prepaid

Answer: C D

5. Which three features are supported with the Message Networking 2.0 S3210 server? (Choose three)

A. SMTP Netwrorking
B. AUDIX DCP Networking
C. Octel Analog Networking
D. Audix TCP/IP Networking
E. Enterprise List Administration

Answer: A C D

6. Which statement is true regarding Software Support Options?

A. Upgrades of Software Support and Software Support Plus are optional
B. Upgrades of Software Support and Software Support Plus are supported on all Modular Messaging releases
C. Upgrades of Software Support and Software Support Plus are supported on Modular Messaging starting with R3.0
D. Upgrades of Software Support and Software Support Plus are supported on Modular Messaging starting with R3.1

Answer: D

7. Which two voice mail systems are supported by a Message Networking server with no analog ports? (Choose two)

A. Definity AUDIX
B. Intuity with DCP digital networking
C. other vendor voice mail using VPIMv2
D. Modular Messaging with Message Storage Server (MSS)

Answer: C D

8. What is the maximum number of Classes of Service (COS) available in Modular Messaging with Message Storage Server (MSS)?

A. 144
B. 256
C. 512
D. 1024

Answer: C

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Nortel.922-108

Communication Server 1000 Rls. 6.0 Dialing Plan Design & IP

1. Which Communication Server 1000 web-based administration application does the signaling server host?

A. Call Server
B. Branch Office Manager
C. Media Gateway Controller
D. NRS Manager

Answer D

2. You are configuring the Network Routing Service for an H.323 network
Which step is mandatory for all IP Peer Networking scenarios?

A. implement Geographic Redundancy
B. add a Collaborative Server
C. add a Service Domain
D. configure the Network Connection Server

Answer C

3. An enterprise has a network with Communication Server (CS) 1000E systems running RIs 6.0 IP Peer Network
For this network, when are the Digital Signal Processor (DSP) resources required?

A. when a compressed media channel is required without circuit switching
B. when interworking is necessary to third-party SIP-enabled products
C. when it Is necessary to transcode between IP and circuit-switched devices
D. when interworking is necessary to third-party H.323-enabled products

Answer C

4. A customer is using Zone Based Dialing in their Networked Communication Server (CS) 1000 systems.
Which prompt has been added to the telephone configuration overlays to allow IP telephones to be configured for this?

A. the DIAL_PLAN prompt (Type of dialing plan for DN/CLID display)
B. the NZON prompt (Numbering Zone)
C. the NUMZONE prompt (Number of the Numbering Zone)
D. the NZDES prompt (Numbering Zone Designator)

Answer C

5. When deploying ESAfor IP telephones, a method for determining the location of the IP telephones is required
If you are deploying internally, what would one method be?

A. Deploy ESA Package 382 (Virtual Office).
B. Deploy Location Information Services (LIS).
C. Deploy Discovery Manager (DM).
D. Deploy ESA Package 387 (Virtual Office Enhancement).

Answer B

6. To enable and configure H.323 on a Communication Server 1000 RIs. 6.0 system, which software component on the Signaling Server must you enable first using Element Manager?

A. H.323 Gateway
B. Media Gateway
C. Terminal Proxy Server (TPS)
D. H.323 Gatekeeper

Answer A

7. You are using Element Manager to program a Route List Index (RLI).
Which Electronic Switched Network (ESN) parameters must you define first to be able to successfully program an RLI?

A. Routing Control (RTCL)
B. Optimal Route (OPRT)
C. Maximum number of route lists (MXRL)
D. Minimum number of route lists (MNRL)

Answer C

8. You are implementing IP Peer Networking in a Communication Server 1000 Rls. 6.0 network. For correct call routing, the digits dialed by users must be manipulated to conform to the dialing requirements of the trunk.
Which statement describes a property of digit manipulation?

A. rt is onty available on branch offices.
B. Programming is shared across all network common trunks
C. It has the ability to delete and insert leading digits.
D. It uses 64 tables for digit replacement.

Answer C

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Nortel.920-363

Communication Server 1000 Rls. 6.0 Installation & Management

1. Click on the Exhibit button.
A customer has deployed a Communications Server (CS) 1000 RIs. 6.0 system at their site. You have been asked to add ten new IP telephones for the marketing department. The new telephones will require the addition of a Superloop. Normally you would use the Add Superloop function within Element Manager but it Is currently not available
Which Overlay (LD) would be used to build a Virtual Superloop for IP telephones if using CU?

A. LD 7
B. LD 17 Record 2
C. LD 67
D. LD 97

Answer D

2. A customer has deployed a Communications Server 1000 RIs 6.0 system at their site. Their sales department is expanding and you have been asked to add five new telephones with the same capabilities as the existing telephones in the department.
Which programming command should you use to complete this task”1

A. Move to DN
B. Move from TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN

Answer D

3. A customer has just deployed a new Communication Server (CS) 1000 RIs. 6.0 High Availability system. You have been instructed to change the default CLI OAM password to comply with the company’s security strategy.
Which level password must you use to change the default password?

A. Level 1 Password (PWD1)
B. Level 2 Password (PWD2)
C. Super User Password (SPW)
D. Limited Access Password (U\PW)

Answer B

4. A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000 RIs. 6.0 system equipped with System Errors and Events Lookup package 245 that provides the ability to display system messages on screen.
When a system message is received, which procedure should they use to look it up and display it on the screen?

A. Enter the system error number followed by .
For example, bug4080
B. Enter bug followed by the system error code and .
For example, bugerr4080
C. Enter errcde followed by the system error code and .
For example, errcde bug4080
D. Enter err followed by the system error code followed by .
For example, err bug4080

Answer D
5. A customer has deployed a Communication Server (CS) 1000 RIs. 6.0 system at their site. They have asked you if the CS 1000 has a feature that can extend and ring calls to other locations. You have decided that Personal Call Assistant (PCA) will meet the customer’s requirements and verified that the system is equipped with Package 398, and that it has sufficient ISM parameters.
Which step must be performed first when implementing PCA?

A. Locate or configure a Superloop for PCA.
B. Enable the PCA feature for the customer.
C. Configure Flexible feature codes for PCA control.
D. Configure the telephone parameters to support PCA.

Answer B

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Nortel.920-177

Nortel Contact Center Rls. 7.0 Administration & Scripting

1. A customer has a Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) RIs. 7.0 and wants to create a collection graphical display What is the maximum number of billboards that can be contained in one collection?

A. 6
B. 10
C. 20
D. 25

Answer D

2. In Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) RIs. 7.0, which set of options specifies how statistics are treated in reports and real-time displays?

A. Activity codes
B. Call Presentation Class
C. Skillset Assignment
D. Threshold Class

Answer D

3. A customer has a Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) RIs. 7.0 and wants an existing user’s profile “User Name” changed, not the first or last name.
Which two steps would accomplish this? (Choose two.)

A. Delete the user.
B. Use the edit mode.
C. Create the new user and user name
D. Use the name change feature.

Answer AC

4. Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) resources are being added using the CCMS Configuration spreadsheet
What are three tasks that can be configured using this tool? (Choose three.)

A. assignments
B. skillsets
C. script variables
D. threshold classes
E. presentation classes

Answer BDE

5. A Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) RIs. 7.0 customer wants to configure real-time display on Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) RIs. 7.0.
What is the default refresh rate for agent real-time reporting display?

A. 0.5 seconds
B. 2 seconds
C. 5 seconds
D. 6 seconds

Answer B

6. An administrator, under partition details, gives you Historical Reporting on the launchpad and all data on any server access
Which type of report templates can you see and access?

A. sub group
B. report groups only
C. all public and private
D. all public and your private only

Answer D

7. A customer is interested in the Access and Partition Management component of Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) RIs. 7.0. For this, the customer needs the capabilities of standard partitions.
Which two statements about partitions are true? (Choose two.)

A. Standard partitions are static and must be manually updated.
B. A Standard partition is one that contains all data of a particular type on a particular server
C. Standard partitions can not be used in conjunction with user-defined partitions.
D. Standard partitions are dynamic.

Answer BD

8. You have a Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) RIs. 7.0 and you need to configure agents
How can this be accomplished?

A. Use the CCMS Utility to make the changes.
B. Use the Configuration component.
C. Use the Contact Center Management component.
D. Use the Access and Partition Management component

Answer C

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Microsoft.MB7-840

NAV 2009 C/SIDE Introduction

1. You need to create a multi-record page that enables users to simultaneously view multiple records from a table and edit them if necessary. What type of page will you use?

A. List

B. RoleCenter

C. Worksheet

D. Document

Answer: AC

2. You have designed a blank form and attached a source table to it. You need to add a subform that shows multiple records from another table. Which properties do you need to set for the subform?

A. SubFormLink

B. ParentControl

C. SubFomSource

D. SubFormID

Answer: AD

3. Which of the following pairs of values in a relational expression are comparable?

A. Integer and Decimal

B. Date and DateTime

C. Text and Option

D. Option and Integer

Answer: AD

4. Which of the following user communication functions is run non-modally?

A. STRMENU

B. MESSAGE

C. ERROR

D. CONFIRM

Answer: B

5. Which objects’ main purpose is exporting and importing data in the RoleTailored client?

A. Dataports

B. XMLports

C. Pages

D. Codeunits

Answer: B

6. How many objects are supported by the RoleTailored client in Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009?

A. Six

B. Seven

C. Eight

D. Nine

Answer: A

7. Which general C/SIDE concepts apply to pages as a new application object type in Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009?

A. Properties, keys, data items, fields, C/AL, and triggers

B. Properties, request form, C/AL, controls

C. Properties, request page, sections, controls, and triggers

D. Properties, C/AL, controls, and triggers

Answer: D

8. Which application objects cannot be run directly from the Object Designer?

A. Pages

B. Dataports

C. XMLports

D. MenuSuite

Answer: ACD

9. Which component of the Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 platform enables integration through Web services?

A. Winforms

B. Application Server

C. Microsoft SQL Server

D. Microsoft Dynamics NAV Server

Answer: D

10. Which objects in Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 can be exposed as Web services?

A. Pages

B. Codeunits

C. Tables

D. XMLports

Answer: AB

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IBM.000-397

IBM WebSphere Portal V5.1, Deployment and Administration

1. Which of the following tasks is required so the Portal Search feature can be made available to the portal user?

A. The Administrator should make the Manage Search Collections portlet available to portal users.
B. Portal users should be granted View access to the Search page created by the administrator.
C. Privileged users should have access to the Manage Search Collections portlet.
D. Portal users should be granted Manage access to the Search page created by the administrator.

Answer C

2. Which of the following personalization components is used to ensure that users logging into a Web site will see specific content based on the user’s personal profile?

A. LikeMinds recommendation engine
B. Rules engine
C. Configure mode of the personalization portlet
D. WebSphere Member Manager

Answer B

3. When using the Portal Administration’s Manage Document Libraries portlet, which of the following sets of configuration options can all be enabled?

A. Document versioning, workflow, document locking
B. Document conversions, workflow, document locking
C. Document versioning, portal editors, document locking
D. Document versioning, workflow, active content filtering

Answer A

4. Which WPSconfig task must be run after installing WebSphere Portal to automatically create the Web Content Management Portal Pages, and install the Web Content Management Authoring Portlet and Local Rendering Portlets?

A. conf igure-wc m- a utho ri n g
B. configure-wcm
C. enable-wcm-portlets
D. deploy-wcm-portlets

Answer A

5. A portal end user is viewing the “Welcome” page and selects the New Page link at the top of the portal to create a page named “Personal Banking”. The “Personal Banking” page will be:

A. Visible to all portal users who have access rights to the ‘My Pages’ page.
B. Visible only to the user who created the page.
C. The parent page of the ‘Welcome’ page in the page hierarchy.
D. Created as a link to an external URL.

Answer B

6. In order to update a portlet configuration using XMLAccess, which attribute in the XML configuration file needs to be set to “update”?

A. update
B. configure
C. action
D. setup

Answer C

7. A manager can open several expense reports simultaneously because the enterprise has integrated their enterprise expense report processing with WebSphere Portal. Which of the following statements is valid regarding the dynamic pages created for processing the expense reports?

A. The dynamic page is a copy of the page definition at the time the instance was created.
B. The dynamic page is a new instance of the page definition at the time the instance was created.
C. Subsequent changes to the page definition will affect the dynamic page.
D. Any changes to the dynamic page will affect the page definition.

Answer A

8. When an administrator uses an xml export from a complete page and changes the create-oids to “true”, what will happen when the xml file is imported again?

A. XMLaccess will throw an error because it cannot find the page.
B. All portlets that are referenced in the xml file and are already on the page, remain untouched, additional portlets are put on the page.
C. All portlets are deleted from the page and the layout is created again.
D. All portlets are deleted from the page and the layout is created again unless the administrator has also set preserve-old-layout=”true”.

Answer D

9. While viewing a page, the administrator selects the Edit Page link and then selects the Add Portlets button below the desired column to add portlets. Which of the following actions will also allow the administrator to add a portlet to this page?
A. While viewing the page, select the Show Tools (Configurator) icon. Select the New Page icon now shown on the current page. Select the Add Portlets button below the desired column to add portlets.
B. Select Administration – Portal User Interface – New Pages and navigate to the new page in the page hierarchy. Select the Edit Page Layout icon. Select the Add Portlets button below the desired column to add portlets.
C. Select Administration – Portal User Interface – Manage Pages and navigate to the target page in the Page hierarchy. Select the Edit Page Layout icon. Select the Add Portlets button below the desired column to add portlets.
D. Select the My Portal link and navigate to the desired page to add portlets. Select the Add Portlets link

Answer C

10. An administrator is modifying the navigation from top navigation to left-hand navigation for a specific page. Which of the following elements will need to be modified?

A. The page’s administration portlets
B. The page’s theme
C. A portlet’s theme on that page
D. A portlet’s skin on the page

Answer B

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IBM.000-331

Power Systems Sales for AIX and Linux

1: Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA) implementations using solutions based on System p and WebSphere can deliver superior value by using the three pillars of the IBM Systems agenda. Which of the following combinations properly describes this Systems Agenda?

A.Hardware, Software, and Services
B.Performance, Reliability, and Value
C.Virtualization, Openness, and Collaboration
D.Technology, Price/Performance, and Innovation

Answer: C

2: A travel industry customer has experienced tremendous seasonal transaction spikes. Their POWER5 550Q server has reached capacity. They are considering a POWER6 replacement and are concerned with scalability. Which of the following solutions meets this need at lowest cost?

A.550 8 core active plus 4 CUoD
B.520 4 core active plus 4 CUoD
C.570 8 core active plus 4 CUoD
D.595 4 core active plus 8 CUoD

Answer: C

3: A prospect is confused about SWMA. Which of the following describes the standard terms for SWMA for AIX and PowerVM?

A.1 or 3 year options
B.Optional 1, 3, or 5 year plans
C.Annual fees as long as in force
D.One year no charge and annual fees after that

Answer: A

4: A customer with several older pSeries servers plans to consolidate to a single Power Systems server. Which of the following tools can provide output that can be merged with Work Load Estimator to size the upgrade based on utilization and growth trends?

A.Insight Manager
B.System Planning Tool
C.Tivoli Capacity Planner
D.Electronic Service Agent

Answer: B

5: A Power Systems sales representative has a meeting with the CIO of a telecommunications company. They have twenty POWER4 systems now. They have ample budget for the new POWER6 systems. They want to move very quickly into virtualization and are anxious to order additional servers. The customer must be in production within 90 days. Which of the following is the key challenge for this opportunity?

A.Adequate funding
B.Business problem
C.Project management
D.Software requirements

Answer: C

6: A company going through business recovery is refreshing non-IBM servers. What is the most complete selling point to replace the existing servers with the new generation of Power Systems servers?

A.Virtualization features
B.Industry leading performance
C.Improved total cost of ownership
D.Ability to run multiple operating systems

Answer: C

7: An SMB customer has been running many small applications on separate older POWER5 servers. They have been reluctant but have agreed to try Virtualization with two applications as a test. Which PowerVM offering meets this need?

A.Lx86
B.Express Edition
C.Standard Edition
D.AIX 6 Workload Manager

Answer: B

8: A POWER6 server customer plans to implement 2 micro partitions (one Linux, one AIX) to be managed by an existing HMC on a 520 server. Which of the following is the minimum version of PowerVM Editions to meet this need?

A.Entry
B.Express
C.Standard
D.Enterprise

Answer: C

9: A healthcare claims office is consolidating 16 older POWER5 servers into Power Systems LPARs. The sizing team determined each LPAR requires one POWER6 CPU 4.7Ghz, 2GB of memory, and two PCIe adapters. Which of the following systems meets this need?

A.One p570
B.Two p550s
C.Six JS22s in a BladeCenter S
D.Six JS12s in a BladeCenter H

Answer: A

10: A customer has three JS22 Express Blades. They plan to try virtualization but are concerned about the cost. Which of the following describes the cost?

A.PowerVM Enterprise Edition allows a 90 day trial free of charge.
B.They require a minimum SWMA contract for PowerVM Standard Edition.
C.They can implement PowerVM for a monthly per core charge plus SWMA.
D.PowerVM Express Edition is a no charge feature and allows up to three logical partitions.

Answer: B

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